In my view, this is demonstrably false. If apartheid was indeed the cause of the poverty of millions of South Africans, why are the citizens in all other African countries generally even poorer, despite the absence of apartheid? Put differently, why did all the other post-independent African countries fare much worse than South Africa?
In contrast, South Africa became a relatively rich and modern state, albeit very racially “skewed”.
If apartheid never happened (if the Afrikaner was never here), there is no reason to believe that South Africa would be any different today from any other former British-ruled African country: a long-failed and much poorer state. …
